Melody

avatar
Имя пользователяMelody
Гол118727
Membership
Stats
Вопросов 900
ответы 33648

-4
850
3
avatar+118727 
Melody  11 февр. 2022 г.
 #4
avatar+118727 
0
16 февр. 2017 г.
 #5
avatar+118727 
+5
16 февр. 2017 г.
 #1
avatar+118727 
0

Hi HSC

That is because this integral does not converge.

 

\(\int_{2}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2n-1}dn\\ =\left[\frac{ln(2n-1)}{2}\right]_2^\infty\\ =\left[\frac{ln(2n-1)}{2}\right]_2^\infty\\ =\infty-\frac{ln3}{2}\\ =\infty\)

 

back up by wolfram|alpha

https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integra+of+1%2F(2x-1)dx+from+x%3D2+to+x%3Dinfty

 

I was surprised by this because here is the graph...

 

The area of the green section represents the integral.... it looks like it converges doesn't it....

 

Maybe Heureka or Alan or some other person might like to comment ://

 

15 февр. 2017 г.