Thanks Tiggy.
I assume the accpetable reason is ...
"The angle between a tangent and a chord is equal to the angle subtended by the chord in the alternate segment."
But I do not remember this rule. I have to find/see a proof to convince myself that it is true.
I found a good proof on YouTube
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LCfgfg8Jv8g